Melody Kondrael wrote:
Perhaps the one who wielded the sword in that instance would never be able to bear that sword again? And then the sword would pass to someone else who would use it aright?
Well, to clarify, while the heirs of the kings can use the powers of the swords to a greater extent, no one is the "bearer" of the sword. Anyone may wield it.
Hm...the problem with this situation is that the sword passing to another would simply be 'punishment', which a person who abused it would eventually receive in the next world anyway. To put in terms used in the Silmarillion "The world is the better for [evil] happening, and yet evil is still evil." So, while not negating the fact that evil has been done, the consequences are altered so that the event leads to greater good than may have happened before. To quote Eru Iluvatar, "...and [Melkor] will see that I can turn even his evil deeds to good, so that he has aided good and not hindered it." (Loose paraphrase, of course.)
That's what I'm shooting for. I'm just trying to figure out exactly how. I do know that in one instance the villain uses a good sword to perform a specif task (yes, I know what the task is), but that action triggers events which ultimately lead to his death.
BTW, main difference between the Three Rings and these three swords, is that the Three Rings are tool of healing, building, and strengthening. The swords are clearly weapons of war: tools created to strike down, destroy, and end. It's just that they strike down, destroy, and end
evil.